(Test Paper – II) 120 Free Preparation Previous Year Questions BSNL TTA (JE) 2016

BSNL JE TTA Recruitment Examination

 

Test Paper – II

1. 1. Reactive current through the capacitive load produces a) Magnetic field b) Electric field c)

Supermagnetic field d) None

2. 2. One of the following which gives piero-electric effect is a) Mu metal b) PVDF c) Sapphire

d) Ferrites

3. 3. PZT piezo-electric materials have a) Higher curie temperature b) Lower curie temperature c)

Absolute temperature d) None

4. 4. The residual resistivity of a binary alloy at OK is a) The sum of the residual resistivities of

the component metals b) The difference of the residual resistivities of the component metals. c) The

product of the residual resistivities of the component metals d) Dependent on the concentration of the

minor component in the alloy

5. 5. In active filter circuits, inductances are avoided mainly because they a) Are always

associated with some resistance b) Are bulky and unsuitable for miniaturisation c) Are non-linear in

nature d) Saturate quickly

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6. 6. The depletion layer across a p-n junction lies a) mostly in the p-region b) mostly in the

n-region c) equally to both p and n region d) entirely in the p-region

_ .7. The voltage induced in a loop of wire rotating in a strong and steady magnetic field is a)

pulsating dc b) dc c) rectified ac

_ .d) ac

7. 8. One of the following types of capacitor which is polarized is a) Electrolytic b) Ceramic c)

Paper d) Mylar

8. 9. Electric shock is-a) Always fatal b) Never fatal c) Sometimes fatal d) Always disfiguring

9. 10. A typical value of filter capacitor for 50 Hz ripple is a) 16mF b) 10F c) 10mF d) None

10. 11. A telephone relay armature is made of material with a) High electrical conductivity b) Low

electrical conductivity c) Negligible conductivity d) None

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11. 12. Larger the value of filter capacitor a) Larger is the peak-peak value of ripple voltage b)

Larger is the peak current in the rectifying diode c) Longer is the time that current pulse flows

through the diode d) Smaller is the dc voltage across the load

12. 13. Barrier potential in a P-N junction is caused by a) Thermally generated electrons and

holes b) Diffusion of majority carriers across the junction c) Migration of minority carriers across the

junction d) Flow of drift current

13. 14. The polarity of VGS for E-only MOSFET is a) positive b) negative c) zero d) depends on

P or N channel

_ .15. The following which will serve as a donor impurity in silicon a) Boron

_ .b) Indium c) Germanium d) Antimony

14. 16. When bias applied to a vari-cap diode is increased, its capacitance a) is decreased b) is

increased c) remains constant d) first increases and then decreases.

15. 17. In case of a bipolar transistor a is a) positive and greater than 1 b) positive and less than 1

c) negative and greater than 1 d) negative and less than 1

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16. 18. A BJT is a) not very sensitive to radiations b) very sensitive to radiations. c) independent

of radiations d) none

17. 19. An SCR may be considered to be a) 2 diodes b) 3 diodes c) 4 diodes d) 5 diodes

18. 20. For a BJT, under the saturation condition a) IC = bIB b) IC > bIB c) IC is independent of

all other parameters d) IC < bIB

19. 21. In modern MOSFET’s the material used for the gate is a) High purity silicon b) High

purity silica c) Heavily doped polycrystalline silicon d) Epitaxial grown silicon

20. 22. Find the Norton's equivalent of the circuit given below

_ .23. When the source in the circuit shown is a sinusoidal source then the input voltage is a) 10V b)

5V_ .c) 27V d) 24V

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21. 24. The time constant of the network shown in the given figure is given by

22. 25. The voltage transfer ratio of two-port networks connected in cascade may be

conveniently obtained from the a) product of the individual ABCD matrices of the two networks b)

product of voltage transfer ratios of the two individual networks c) sum of the Z- matrices of the two

networks d) sum of the h – matrices of the two networks

23. 26. When a network has response with time as shown in fig. then which one of the following

diagrams represents the location of the poles of this network ?

24. 27. For the network shown in the given fig. the ratio is

25. 28. An attenuator drops a 10V signal to 50mv in an experiment. The loss in decibels is a)

–40dB b) –6dB c) –55dB d) –60dB

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26. 29. When the network has 10 nodes and 17 branches then the number of different node pair

voltages would be a) 7 b) 9 c) 10 d) 45

27. 30. The circuit shown in the following fig. will act as an ideal current source with respect to

terminals A and B when frequency is a) zero b) 1rad/s c) 4rad/s d) 16rad/s

31.When a short vertical grounded antenna is required to radiate at 1MHz and the effective height of

the antenna is 30 m then the calculated value of the radiation resistance is a) 1.58 W b) 158 W c) 15.8

W d) None of these

32. Shannon’s law relates

a) antenna gain to bandwidth b) frequency to antenna gain c) antenna gain to transmission

losses d) information carrying capacity to S/N ratio

2. 33. One of the following modes which has the characteristic of attenceation becoming less as

the frequency is increased and is attractive at microwave frequencies of circular cylindrical wave

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guides is a) TE1 mode b) TM01 mode c) TE01 mode d) Higher order mode

34.For a transmission line, the propogation constant, for a TEM wave travelling in it is

given by (Where the symbols have the usual meanings ) a) [ (R+jwL) (G+jwc)]

b) [ R+jwL) (G+jwc)] ½

c) [ (R-jwL) (G + jwc) ] ½

d) [(R-jwL) ( G+jw2c)]1/3

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2. 3. Higher operating frequencies possible a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3 c) 2 and 3 d) 1,2 and 3

3. 36. When a 75 ohm transmission line is to be terminated in two resistive loads R1 and R2

such that the standing pattern in the two cases have the same SWR , then the values of R1 and R2 (in

ohms) should be a) 250 and 200 respectively b) 225 and 25 respectively c) 100 and 150 respectively

d) 50 and 125 respectively

4. 37. The degenerate modes in a wave guide are characterized by a) Same cut off frequencies

but different field distribution b) Same cut off frequencies and same field distributions c) Different

cut off frequencies but same field distributions d) Different cut off frequencies and different field

distributions

38.A TEM wave impinges obliquely on a dielectric-dielectric boundary with Er1=2 and Er2=1, the

angle of incidence for total reflection is a) 30 0 b) 60 0 c) 45 0 d) 90 0

1. 39. The radiation pattern of Hertzian dipole in the plane perpendicular to the dipole is a a)

Null

b) Circle

c) Figure of eight

d) None of the above

2. 40. Permeance is the a) square of reluctance

b) reluctance

c) reciprocal of the reluctance

d) cube of the reluctance.

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3. 41. One of the following which is an active transducer is a) Photoelectric

b) Photovoltaic

c) Photo-conductive

d) Photo emission

4. 42. The wein bridge uses only a) Inductors

b) Capacitors

c) Resistors

d) Capacitors and Resistors.

5. 43. The greater the value of Q a) higher will be the bandwidth of the resonant circuit.

b) smaller will be the bandwidth of the resonant circuit.

c) nothing can be said)

d) none.

6. 44. The most serious source of error in a) c) bridge measurement is a) eddy currents

b) leakage currents

c) residual imperfectness

d) stray fields.

7. 45. Moving iron instruments a) have a linear scale

b) do not have a linear scale

c) both a and b)

d) none.

8. 46. If accuracy is the main consideration, which one of the following voltmeters should one

select a) 100 v ; 2 mA b) 100 v ; 100 ohm/volt c) 100 v ; 1mA d) 10,000 v ; 10 mA

9. 47. In dc tacho generators used for measurement of speed of a shaft, frequent calibration has

to be done because a) the contacts wear off b) the strength of permanent magnet decreases with age

c) the armature current produces heating effect d) there is back emf.

10. 48. Ideal transformer cannot be described by a) h parameters b) ABCD parameters c) G

parameters d) parameters

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11. 49. Consider the following statements A3- phase balanced supply system is connected to a 3

phase unbalanced load) Power supplied to this load can be measured using

1. 1. Two wattmeters

2. 2. One wattmeter

3. 3. Three wattmetersWhich of these statements is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3 c) 2 and 3

d) 3 alone

4. 50. The function of the reference electrode in a pH meter is to a) Produce a constant voltage

b) Provide temperature compensation c) Provide a constant current d) Measure average pH value

_ .51. Match the column A (Devices) with column B (Characteristics) and select the correct answer

by using the codes given below the column Column A Column B A) BJT 1. Voltage controlled

negative resistance B) MOSFET 2. High current gain C) Tunnel diode 3. Voltage regulation D)

Zener diode 4. High input impedance

5. 52. A thyristor during forward blocking state is associated with.-

a) large current , low voltage.

b) low current , large voltage.

c) medium current , large voltage

d) low current, medium voltage.

6. 53. In controlled rectifiers, the nature of load current i.e. whether load current is

continuous or discontinuous a) does not depend on type of load and firing angle delay

b) depends both on the type of load and firing angle delay

c) depends only on the type of load)

d) depends only on the firing angle delay.

7. 54. A single phase voltage controller feeds power to a resistance of 10 W . The source

voltage is 200 V rms. For a firing angle of 900 , the rms value of thyristor current in

amperes is a) 20

b) 15

c) 10

d) 5

8. 55. In the performance of single phase and three phase full converters the effect of source

inductance is to

a) reduce the ripples in the load current b) make discontinuous current as continuous

c) reduce the output voltage

d) increase the load voltage.

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9. 56. The cycloconverters (CCs) require natural or forced commutation as under a) natural

commutation in both step up and step down CCs

b) forced commutation in both step up and step down CCs

c) forced commutation in step up CCs

d) forced commutation in step down CCs

10. 57. Power transistors are more commonly of a) silicon npn type.

b) silicon pnp type.

c) silicon nnp type.

d) silicon npp type.

11. 58. C is a -

a)Middle level language

b) High level language

c) Low level language

d) None of above

12. 59. What will be output of programmain ( )

{ int i ;

print f ("Enter value of i");

scant ("%d", & i);

if ( i = 5 )

print f ("you entered 5");

else

print f ("you entered %d", i ); }

if user entered 100 then

a) 5

b) 100

c) 1005

d) None

13. 60. (7F)16 + (BA)16 = (?)16a) 481

b) 139

c) –481

d) –139

14. 61. Two’s complement of 3 bit nonzero linory number is some or original number is all

bits acceptsa)

MSB are zeros

b) LSB are zeros

c) MSB are ones

d) LSB are ones.

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15. 62. The schematic circuits of RTL NOR gate is

_ .63. Transistors with high frequency have a) Thick base

_ .b) Thin base c) Some other feature d) None of the above

16. 64. Telephone traffic is specified in terms of a) Average waiting time b) Grade of service c)

Peak waiting time d) Erlangs

17. 65. In a Hartley oscillator a) Necessary phase relation is obtained by connecting grid and

plate electrodes to the opposite ends of the tuned circuit. b) The mutual inductance must have the

appropriate polarity. c) Both grid circuit and plate tuned circuit offer inductive reactance d) None of

the above

66.The condenser C is charged in a bootstrap sweep generator a) Linearly but the discharge is non

linear b) Non linearly but the discharge is linear c) Linearly and the discharge is linear d) Non

linearly and the discharge is non linear

67.In an audio amplifier audio signals become garbled and hence difficult to understand when an ac

input current is large enough to drive the output to a) saturation only b) Cut off only c) Either

saturation or cut off d) A value off the load line

1. 68. Five 1 bit registers are referred as a) Flags

b) Slags

c) Tags

d) None of the above

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2. 69. Next binary number after 0,1, 10, 11 is a) 12

b) 101

c) 100

d) 110

3. 70. Identify coincidence logic circuit in the following –

a) b)

c) d)

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72. If an inverter is placed at the input to an SR flip flop, the result is a) T flip flop b) D flip flop c)

JK flip flop d) BCD decade counter

73. See the Root locus diagram of a system and the following statements :

1. The open loop system is a second order system.

2. The system is over damped for

3. The system is absolutely stable for all value of R.Which of these statements are correct?

a) 1, 2, & 3

b) 1 and 3

c) 2 and 3

d) 1 and 2

74. For the transfer function G(S)H(S) = the phase cross over frequency is a) 0.5 rad/sec b) 0.707

rad/sec c) 1.732 rad/sec d) 2 rad/sec BSNL GE JTO Recruitment Examination previous years 2007

2008 Question Paper free donwload online. solutions coming soon!

75. If the open loop transfer function of the system is G(S) H(S) =

then a closed loop pole will be located at S = -12 wher the value of K is a) 4355

b) 5760

c) 9600

d) 9862

76. Considering the following open loop transfer function The correct sequence of these systems in

increasing order of the time taken for the unit

step response to settle is –

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 3, 1, 2

c) 2, 3, 1

d) 3, 2, 1.

77. Considering unit feed back control system in the given figure, the ratio of time

constant of closed loop response to open loop response will be

a) 1 : 1

b) 2 :1

c) 3 : 2

d) 2 : 3

78. Angle subtended by earth at geostationary communication satellite is a) 17.340 b) 51.40 c) 1200

d) 600

79.For data transmission phase modulation is commonly used because a) Phase can be varied from

+1800 to -1800 b) It is resistant to the effects of noise. c) Demodulation is very easy d) It gives

highest data rates that can be transmitted over a given channel.

80 . Several channels are interleaved and then transmitted together is known as – a) Frequency

division multiplex b) Time division multiplex c) A group d) A super group

1. 81. Identify the wrong statement-The radar cross section of a target a) Depends on the

frequency used b) May be reduced by special coating of the target c) Depends on the aspect of a

target, if this is non spherical d) Is equal to the actual cross-sectional area for small targets.

2. 82. Considering following parameters

1. 1. Loss in the media) 2. Permeability of the media) 3. Frequency of the wave 4. Velocity of

the wave. Which of these parameters are responsible for the change of phase of a propagating

electromagnetic wave? a) 1, 2, and 3 b) 2, 3 and 4 c) 1, 3 and 4 d) 1 and 4

2. 83. In super heterodyne receivers double spotting is caused by a) poor front-end rejection b)

misalignment of receiver c) detuning of one or more IF stages. d) non functioning of AGC

84. The number of lines per field in the United States TV system is a) 262 1/2 b) 525 c) 30

d) 60

3. 85. In a TV receiver the color killer a) cuts off the chroma stages during monochrome

receivers. b) ensures that no color is transmitted to monochrome receivers c) prevents color

overloading d) makes sure that the color burst is not mistaken for sync pulses, by cutting off

reception during the back porch.

4. 86. The nominal capacitance of a coaxial RF cable is of 40 pF/m and the characteristic

impedance of 50W. The inductance of the cable is-a) 1mH/m b) 10 mH/m c) 0.1 mH/m d) 0.01

mH/m

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5. 87. Transmission of wave through Dominant mode is a) distortion less transmission b)

generates undesirable harmonic distortion c) having loss of power d) None of above.

6. 88. Lower the standing wave ratio (SWR) a) Greater mismatch error b) Lower mismatch

error c) No effect on matching d) Moderate mismatch error

7. 89. In klyrtron oscillator for getting wide range of oscillations resonators should be a)

Critically coupled b) Under coupled c) Over coupled d) No coupling required

8. 90. The critical frequency is always a) Lower than maximum usable frequency b) Equal to

maximum usable frequency c) Higher than maximum usable frequency d) None of above

9. 91. The PIN diode based on a) Nonlinear resistance b) Nonlinear reactance c) Negative

resistance d) Controllable impedence

10. 92. Which antenna having circular polarization a) Horn antenna b) Lens antenna c) Helical

antenna d) Discone antenna

11. 93. The i/p S/N ratio of system is 50 and the o/p S/N ratio is 5 the noise figure is a) 250 b) 55

c) 10 d) 45

12. 94. In the 8085 mP, the RST 6 instruction transfers the program execution to the following

location a) 30 H b) 24 H c) 48 H d) 60 H

13. 95. In instruction cycle first operation is a) Memory read b) Address read c) Opcode fetch d)

Data read

14. 96. CMP instruction comes under group a) Data transfer b) Branching operations c) Machine

control operation d) Logical operations.

97.In which logic operation does not effect any flags a) ANA B

b) ORA B

c) XRI A2H

d) CMA

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98.What happen when CALL instruction executed a) Data retrieved from stock to register

b) Data from register saved on the stock.

c) 16 bit address of instruction saved on stock

d) 16 bit address from stock retrieved)

99 The mark status of mark able interrupts is defined according to content of a) stack pointer.

b) HL register .

c) Program counter

d) Accumulator

100.The decoder is a logic ckt that a) Amplifies the current or power at i/p.

b) Identifies each combination of the signals present at i/p

c) Provides appropriate code as o/p for each i/p signal

d) Both b & c)

101. The young man was quickly promoted when his employers how --------------- he was

-

a) indigent

b) indifferent

c) assiduous

d) cursory.

102. As letter is alphabet so zodiac is a) almanac

b) beacon

c) sign

d) signal.

103.What is the correct meaning of prudish.?

a) careful

b) fast

c) God

d) brave

104. Pick out the odd matching with reference to number a) woman – women.

b) hair – hairs

c) child – children.

d) foot – feet.

105.Choose the phrase that is most nearly similiar in meaning to the word given below-

Abut is

a) Stimulate

b) Grasp

c) Oppose

d) Adjoin

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106. The highest mountain peak in Indian Territory is a) Mount

Everest

b) Kanchenjunga

c) Nanda Devi

d) Mount Kailash

107. German silver is an alloy comprising a) Copper, Nickel and Zinc b) Silver, copper and Zinc c)

Silver Nickel and Zinc d) Nickel, Zinc and Lead

108. Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar’s mausoleum is in a) Delhi b) Lahore c) Yangon d) Agra

109. On which date the World Trade Centre in New York and Pentagon in Washington d)C was

attacked by terrorist a) 12 September 2001 b) 11 September 2001 c) 11 July 2001 d) 20 December

2001

110. India defeats South Africa in the finals of the inaugural champions challenge Hockey

Tournament in Kualalumpur by a) 4-2 b) 2-0 c) 3-2 d) 2-1

111.Which planets in the solar system are known as ‘Inferior Planets’ a) Earth and Mars b) Earth and

Mercury c) Mars and Mercury d) Mercury and Venus.

112. The largest Stupa in Southern India is at a) Nellore b) Amravati c) Tanjore d) Kozhikode

113. The new chairman and Managing Director of Industrial Finance Corporaton of India (IFCI) is a)

Mr. Vishwanath Prasad Singh b) Mr. Jitendra Patil c) Mr. Ragh d) Mr. Shubhash chand Jain 114.

Which one is the latest among rock-cut temples? a) Ajanta b) Ellora c) Elephanta d) All originated in

the same period)

BSNL Junior Engineer (Erstwhile TTA) Practice Workbook 2016-17 (36.5.1) (English)

115. Number of organisations government ban in Jammu and Kashmir and the North East under the

new ordinance ‘POTO’ is a) 20 b) 21 c) 22 d) 23

116. In bed of which river does Badrinath shrine stand? a) Ganga b) Mandakini c) Alakananda d)

Bhagirathi

117. The nerve endings for the sense of sight are located in the part of the eye called the a) Cornea b)

Sclera c) Iris d) Retina

118. Fundamental duties were introduced in the constitution by the a) 40th Amendment b) 42nd

Amendment c) 43rd Amendment d) 44th Amendment

119. The Khalsa Panth was founded by a) Guru Hargovind b) Guru Nanak Dev c) Guru Tegh

Bahadur d) Guru Govind singh

120. Number of countries involved in international fleet review hosted by India is a) 27 b) 28 c) 29 d)

30

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