BSNL JE Question Paper with Answers 2012
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BSNL TTA 2012 Solved Paper:
1..Directions: Find the word nearest to the meaning to the following:
1. GAPE
a. To wound
b. Open mouth wide
c. An animal
d. Act foolishly
2. VIGIL
a. Long journey
b. Young nun
c. Celebration
d. Watchful wakefulness
3. FICKLE
a. Constant
b. Tasty
c. Changeable
d. Nervous
4. PRODIGY
a. Sweet dish
b. Offspring
c. Spendthrift
d. Exceptionally talented person
5. INCREDIBLE
a. Foolish
b. Unbelievable
c. Wonderful
d. Uncertain
Directions: Choose the correct option.
6. Life history of a person written by another person
a. Autobiography
b. History
c. Biography
d. Epic
7. All __________ Dileep were present.
a. Expect
b. Accept
c. Except
d. Expected
8. What is the shortest __________ from Ranchi to Lucknow?
a. Root
b. Route
c. Rout
d. Roote
9. My father has given his _________________
a. Descent
b. Ascent
c. Accent
d. Assent
10. Tell me the reason ______________ he refused to come.
a. When
b. Why
c. What
d. Which
11. Ms. Saina Nehwal is associated with
a. Badminton
b. Table tennis
c. Lawn tennis
d. Weightlifting
12. The most recent Asian games were held in the city of
a. New Delhi
b. Guangzhou
c. Beijing
d. Kuala Lumpur
13. Sunderbuns is
a. Breed of buffalo
b. Dance form of South India
c. Song Bird
d. Part of Gangetic Delta
14. The movie ‘Three Idiots’ is based on a novel by
a. Amitava Ghosh
b. Mulk Raj Anand
c. Chetan Bhagat
d. Salman Rushdie
15. Capital of Mizoram is
a. Aijwal
b. Panaji
c. Imphal
d. Ziro
16. Kuchpudi is a dance form of the state of
a. Punjab
b. Maharashtra
c. Kerala
d. Andhra Pradesh
17. The cabinet minister for Communications and IT is
a. Sh. A Raja
b. Sh. Dayanidhi Maran
c. Sh. Sachin Pilot
d. Sh. Kapil Sibal
18. Which country is as the main producer of raw diamonds?
a. USA
b. Canada
c. South Africa
d. Brazil
a. Chandipur
b. Sriharikota
c. Thumba
d. Vadodara
a. Neyveli
b. Jaduguda
c. Trombay
d. Raniganj
21. The Eigen values of a matrix are also called as _________ roots.
a. Characteristic and Latent
b. Characteristic
c. Latent
d. None
22. Cayley-Hamilton is useful to find
a. Inverse and power of matrix
b. Only inverse of matrix
c. Only power of matrix
d. None
23. Every square matrix can be expressed as the sum of
a. Symmetric and skew symmetric
b. Symmetric and Hermitian
c. Skew symmetric and Hermitian
d. None
24. If AT = A then the matrix A is called
a. Symmetric
b. Skew Symmetric
c. Hermitian
d. None
25. If U = X2 + Y2 then d2U/dXdY is
a. 2
b. 0
c. 3
d. 4
26. Which of the following is a solution of X2Y” – 2Y = 0?
a. Y = X2
b. Y = X
c. Y = eX
d. None
27. Laplace Transform of Sin(at) is
a. s/(s2 + a2)
b. s/(s2 - a2)
c. a/(s2 + a2)
d. none
28. electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature is evident by
a. Polarization
b. Interference
c. Reflection
d. Diffraction
29. For a wave propagating in a medium, identify the property that is independent of others
a. Velocity
b. Wavelength
c. Frequency
d. All of the above
30. Which one of the following has the longest wavelength?
a. UV rays
b. IR rays
c. Radio Waves
d. X-rays
31. A laser beam is used for locating distant objects because
a. It is monochromatic
b. It is coherent
c. It is not absorbed
d. It has small angular speed
32. One ampere is equivalent to
a. 1 coulomb second
b. 1 coulomb per second
c. 1 joule second
d. 1 joule/second
33. When the length and area of cross section both are doubled then its resistance
a. Will become half
b. Will be doubled
c. Will remain same
d. Will become four times
34. A solenoid is at potential difference of 60 volts and current flows through it is 15 A, then the resistance of the coil will be
a. 4 Ω
b. 8 Ω
c. 0.25 Ω
d. 2 Ω
35. Ohms law is true for
a. Metallic conductors at low temperatures
b. Metallic conductors at high temperatures
c. For electrolytes when current passes through them
d. For diode when current flows
36. The ratio of primary to is 9:4. If power input is P. What will be the ratio of power output to the power input?
a. 4:9
b. 9:4
c. 5:4
d. 1:1
37. In a step-up transformer, the turn’s ratio is 1:2. A Leclanche cell (EMF 1.5 volts) is connected across the primary. The voltage across the secondary is
a. 3.0 volts
b. 0.75 volts
c. Zero
d. 1.5 volts
38. If the voltage drops from 220 volts to 22 volts, current in the primary cell is (given impedance of the secondary coil is 220 Ω)
a. 0.1 A
b. 1 A
c. 10 A
d. 0.01 A
39. A 100 volts is applied across a DC motor, 5 Amp current is flowing through the motor. The circuit has efficiency of 75%. What is the armature resistance?
a. 25 Ω
b. 5 Ω
c. 10 Ω
d. 20 Ω
40. The induction coil works on the principle of
a. Self-induction
b. Mutual induction
c. Ampere’s law
d. Fleming’s right hand rule
41. In an AC generator, a coil with N turns, all with same area A, and total resistance R, rotates with frequency ω in a magnetic field B. The maximum value of the EMF generated in the coil is
a. NABR
b. NABω
c. NABRω
d. NAB
42. A transformer is used to light a 100 W and 110 W lamps from 220 volts mains. If the main current is 0.5 A, the efficiency of the transformer is approximately
a. 50%
b. 90%
c. 10%
d. 30%
43. The capacitor commonly used for ceiling fan motors has value of 2.3 µF. The type of capacitor used is generally
a. Paper capacitor, oil impregnated
b. Electrolytic capacitor
c. Parallel plate capacitor with mica dielectric
d. None of the above
44. The effect of passing current through a conductor is
a. Magnetic as well as heating effect
b. Only chemical effect
c. Only magnetic effect
d. Only heating effect
45. The sign of ⊗ in a plane view of conductor means
a. The current flows into the drawing area
b. The current flows out of the drawing area
c. There is a positive current in the conductor
d. The cork screw rule cannot be applied
46. The coefficient of self inductance of a coil is defines as
a. Φ/ NI
b. NI/Φ
c. NΦ/I
d. ΦI/N
47. When the magnetic flux and area is known, the flux density can be given as
a. B = ΦXA
b. B = Φ/A
c. B = A/Φ
d. None
48. Decibel is defined in terms ratio of
a. Voltage
b. Current
c. Power
d. All of the above
49. Energy stored in an inductance is given by (in joules)
a. 0
b. 2 LI2
c. LI2/2
d. None
50. The relation between Irms and Imax is
a. Irms = 1.414 Imax
b. Irms = Imax
c. Irms = 0.707 Imax
d. None
51. Which of the following values of an alternating current is indicated by a normal universal measuring instrument?
a. IRMS
b. IAVE
c. IMAX
d. None
52. The most popular types of IC’s are
a. Thin film
b. Hybrid
c. Thick Film
d. Monolithic
53. The SiO2 layer in an IC acts as a/an
a. Resistor
b. Insulating layer
c. Mechanical output
d. None
54. The Q of a tuned circuit refers to the property of
a. Sensitivity
b. Fidelity
c. Selectivity
d. None
55. In parallel resonance, there is
a. Both voltage and current amplification
b. Voltage amplification
c. Current amplification
d. None
56. Hartley oscillator commonly used in
a. Radio receivers
b. Radio transmitters
c. TV receivers
d. None
57. In a phase shift oscillator, we use ____ RC sections.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. None
58. In general, the gain of an amplifier is
a. Real
b. Imaginary
c. Complex
d. Integer
59. _______ Coupling is employed in power amplifiers.
a. Transformer
b. RC
c. Direct
d. Impedance
60. Power amplifiers handle _____ signals compared to voltage amplifiers.
a. Small
b. Very small
c. Large
d. None
61. Class C amplifiers are used as
a. AF amplifiers
b. Detectors
c. RF amplifiers
d. None
62. Class ___ operation gives the maximum distortion.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. AB
63. Negative feedback is employed in
a. Oscillators
b. Rectifiers
c. Amplifiers
d. None
64. Emitter follower is used for_____
a. Current gain
b. Impedance matching
c. Voltage gain
d. none
65. An oscillator employs ______ feedback.
a. Positive
b. Neither positive nor negative
c. Negative
d. Data insufficient
66. In transistor amplifiers, we use ______ transformer for impedance matching.
a. Step up
b. Step down
c. Same turn ratio
d. None
67. For highest power gain, one would use _____ configuration.
a. CC
b. CB
c. CE
d. None
68. The phase difference between the output and input voltages of a CE amplifier is
a. 180o
b. 0o
c. 90o
d. 270o
69. It is generally desired that a transistor should have _____ input impedance.
a. Low
b. Very low
c. High
d. Very high
70. In the study of transistor as an amplifier, relation between α and β is, where α is CB dc current gain and β is CE dc current gain.
a. β = (1-α)/α
b. β = α/(1-α)
c. β = α/(1+α)
d. β = (1+α)/α
71. The three transistor currents, IE, IB, IC bear the ratio
a. 1: 1-α : α
b. 1: 2: 3
c. 1: α: α
d. α: β: α
72. The maxmum efficienby of full wave rectifier is
a. 100 %
b. 25.20 %
c. 40.6 %
d. 81.2 %
73. The approximate ratio of resistances in forward and reverse bias of PN junction diode is
a. 102 : 1
b. 10-2 : 1
c. 1 : 10-4
d. 1 : 104
74. If the forward voltage in a semiconductor diode is doubled, the width of depletion layer
a. Becomes half
b. Becomes one-fourth
c. No change
d. None
75. To obtain P-type semiconductor, we need to dope pure silicon with
a. AI
b. P
c. O
d. Ge
76. The intrinsic semiconductor becomes insulator at
a. 0oC
b. – 100oC
c. 300oK
d. 0oK
77. The forbidden energy gap in conductors, semiconductors and insulators are EG1, EG2and EG3 respectively. The relation among them is
a. EG1 = EG2 = EG3
b. EG1 < EG2 < EG3
c. EG1 > EG2 > EG3
d. EG1 < EG2 > EG3
78. When Germanium(Ge) crystals are doped with phosphorous(P), then it becomes
a. Insulator
b. P-type
c. N-type
d. Superconductor
79. The logic family that has least power dissipation is
a. TTL
b. ECL
c. CMOS
d. DCTL
80. One of the following is an example of cyclic code
a. ASCII
b. BCD
c. Excess-3
d. Gray code
81. The code used for correcting errors in data transmission is
a. Hollerith code
b. Gray code
c. Hamming code
d. BCD
82. The typical power consumption of low power TTL is
a. 100 µW
b. 1 mW
c. 10 mW
d. 2 mW
83. The typical propagation delay time of statndard TTL is
a. 10 ns
b. 16 ns
c. 35 ns
d. 6 ns
84. ______ logic is mostly used in microprocessor chips.
a. TTL
b. DTL
c. CMOS
d. NMOS
85. The minimum number of NAND gates required to perform NOT operation is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
86. The minimum number of NAND gates required to perform EX-NOR gate is
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
87. The minimum number of NOR gates required to perform EX-OR gate is
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 3
88. The EX-OR gate is also called
a. Inequality circuit
b. 1 bit comparator
c. Difference circuit
d. All of the above
89. A + (AB)’ equals to
a. A
b. B
c. A’ + B
d. A + B
90. A circuit consists of 7 NOT gates connected in cascade, it acts like
a. An inverter
b. A non-inverter
c. A controlled inverter
d. None
91. The number of inputs and outputs in a full adder are
a. 2, 3
b. 2, 2
c. 3, 2
d. 4, 2
92. The full adder can be constructed using two half adders and a ______
a. AND gate
b. NOT gate
c. OR gate
d. NAND gate
93. The digital comparators are used to compare two
a. Binary numbers
b. Octal numbers
c. Decimal numbers
d. Hexa-decimal numbers
94. The Latch can be developed using
a. AND gates
b. OR gates
c. NOT gates
d. NAND gates
95. The number of inputs and outputs of a basic RS flip-flop is
a. 2,2
b. 3,2
c. 2,3
d. 1,2
96. The forbidden input condition is present in
a. RS flip-flop
b. D flip-flop
c. JK flip-flop
d. T flip-flop
97. When both J and K inputs of edge triggered JK flip-flop are ‘1’, then the flip-flop is in
a. Race condition
b. Synchronous condition
c. Asynchronous condition
d. Toggle condition
98. The D flip-flop and T flip-flop are respectively used as
a. Toggle and Delay gate
b. Delay and Toggle switch
c. Both used as delay gates
d. Both used as toggle switches
99. A flip-flop is the fundamental building block of _________ logic circuit.
a. Sequential
b. Combinational
c. Arithmetic
d. None
100. Generally __________ flip-flops are used in shift registers.
a. D
b. T
c. SR
d. JK
101. One of the application of register is in
a. Delay line
b. Modem
c. Multiplexer
d. Decoder
102. The important feature of N-bit Jhonson counter is that
a. It has 2N counts
b. It has N counts
c. It has a single ‘1’ in each count
d. None
103. A counter in which the output of one flip-flop acts as clock for other is termed as
a. Synchronous counter
b. Ripple counter
c. Ring counter
d. Decoder
104. The counter in which all flip-flops change state at the same time in synchronism with the clock is termed as
a. Ripple counter
b. Asynchronous counter
c. Synchronous counter
d. None
105. A register that shifts the data bits in individual flip-flops one step to the right each time a clock pulse applied is called
a. Storage register
b. Serial shift register
c. Ring counter
d. None
106. The minimum number of flip-flops required for a MOD-14 counter is
a. 7
b. 4
c. 5
d. 14
107. Counters are used in measurement of
a. Frequency
b. Time
c. Distance
d. All of the above
108. Which of the following counter results in least delay
a. Ring counter
b. Ripple counter
c. Synchronous counter
d. Asynchronous counter
109. With on chip decoding, N-address lines can access _________ memory locations.
a. N
b. N2
c. 2N
d. 2N
110. A TRIAC is like a
a. Unidirectional SCR
b. Bidirectional SCR
c. NPN transistor
d. PNP transistor
Section III: Specialization
111. If P is the true power, Pr is the reactive power and Pa is the apparent power then the power factor is given by
a. P/Pa
b. Pa/P
c. Pr/P
d. P/Pr
112. To get 230 volts form three phase 20 KV/ 400 V supply transformer, the three windings of its secondary side should be connected in
a. Delta
b. Parallel
c. Star
d. Series
113. The value of the electric current dangerous to the human body is
a. 1 µA
b. 1 mA
c. 10 mA
d. 35 mA
114. The speed of a DC motor is
a. Directly proportional to back EMF and inversely proportional to Flux
b. Inversely proportional to back EMF and directly proportional to Flux
c. Directly proportional to EMF and Flux
d. Inversely proportional to EMF and Flux
115. The EMF of a DC generator depends on
a. Commutation
b. Speed
c. Frequency
d. Brush contact drop
116. The steel for construction of transformer core is made so as to have
a. High permeability and low hysteresis loss
b. Low permeability and high hysteresis loss
c. Low permeability and low hysteresis loss
d. High permeability and High hysteresis loss
117. At every instant the direction of secondary current in a transformer must be such as to oppose any change in flux. This is in accordance with
a. Faraday’s Law
b. Joule’s Law
c. Lenz’s Law
d. Coulomb’s Law
118. Alternators are rated in
a. KVA
b. KVAR
c. KW
d. KWh
119. In an industry, maximum demand is 2 MW and annual consumption is 8.70 million units per year. The load factor will be
a. 0.2
b. 0.4
c. 0.5
d. Cannot be determined by this data
120. Which of the following circuit breakers does not use pneumatic operating mechanism?
a. Air blast circuit breaker
b. SiF4 (Sulphur Hexafluoride) circuit breaker
c. Air brake circuit breaker
d. Bulk oil circuit breaker
121. Which of the following statements about the internal resistance of measuring instruments is TRUE?
a. The internal resistance of ammeters should be very small and that of the voltmeter very high.
b. The internal resistance of ammeters should be very high and that of the voltmeter very small.
c. The internal resistance of ammeters and voltmeters should be very small.
d. The internal resistance of ammeters and voltmeters should be very high.
122. Am Ohm-meter is a device which
a. Measures the resistance of a circuit
b. Can locate open circuits
c. Can locate short circuits
d. All of these
123. Meggar is an instrument t o measure
a. Very low resistance
b. Insulation resistance
c. Q of a coil
d. Inductance of a coil
124. A consumer is connected to an alternating voltage. The power consumed is measured with the help of watt-meter. Which of the following powers is indicated by the watt-meter?
a. Apparent power
b. True power
c. Reactive power
d. The product of voltage and current, V x I
125. Hydrometer is used to determine
a. Specific gravity of liquids
b. Relative humidity
c. Specific gravity of solids
d. Specific gravity of gases
126. Which one of the following devices can be used to give an indication of temperature changes?
a. Bourdan gage
b. Thermister
c. Thermocouple
d. All of the above
127. An alternating voltage is given in volts by the expression, V = 326 sin314t. Its RMS value and frequency are
a. 326 volts and 60 Hz
b. 326 volts and 50 Hz
c. 230 volts and 60 Hz
d. 230 volts and 50 Hz
128. In star connection, all line voltages are equal in magnitude, but displaced ____ degrees apart from one another.
a. 30o
b. 100o
c. 120o
d. 180o
129. In a balanced 3-phase star connection, the magnitude of line currents is ____ phase currents.
a. equal to
b. greater than
c. less than
d. unequal to
130. in Delta connection, all line currents are equal in magnitude, but displaced ____ degrees apart.
a. 30o
b. 100o
c. 120o
d. 180o
131. The refrigerants generally used in an air-conditioner are
a. Water
b. Ammonia
c. Chlorofluro-carbons
d. Air
132. The main principle behind cooling in refrigerators and air-conditioners is
a. Evaporation
b. Compression
c. Expansion
d. Condensation
133. A tunnel diode is used for
a. Very low frequencies
b. 50 Hz
c. High frequencies
d. Microwave frequencies
134. The process in which the signal is first compressed before modulation and expanded after demodulation so as to allow the use of a uniform quantizing rate is known as
a. Companding
b. Pre-emphasis
c. De-emphasis
d. None
135. The microwave range is
a. 30 MHz – 300 MHz
b. 300 MHz – 3 GHz
c. 3 GHz – 30 GHz
d. 30 GHz – 300 GHz
136. The dominant mode in rectangular waveguide is
a. TE11
b. TE10
c. TM01
d. TM11
137. The dominant mode in circular waveguide is
a. TE11
b. TE10
c. TM01
d. TM11
138. Which of the following is the condition for distortion less line?
a. LC = RG
b. L/G = R/C
c. L/C = G/R
d. L/C = R/G
139. The characteristic impedance of a lossless transmission line is given by
a. LC
b. √LC
c. √(L/C)
d. √(C/L)
140. A causal system is the one in which the output depends upon
a. Input as well as output
b. Present and past inputs
c. Present as well as future inputs
d. None of the above
141. A causal system is the one in which the output depends upon
a. Input as well as output
b. Present and past inputs
c. Present as well as future inputs
d. None of the above
142. Area under a unit impulse function is
a. Infinity
b. Zero
c. Unity
d. None of these
143. Stability of control system can be determined from one of the following responses
a. Impulse response
b. Step response
c. Ramp response
d. None of the above
144. One of the following methods can be used to determine the relative stability of a control system
a. Routh stability criterion
b. Hurwitz stability criterion
c. Root locus technique
d. None of these
145. How many general purpose registers are there in 8085 microprocessor?
a. 3
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7
146. RST 6.5 is
a. Maskable interrupt
b. Vector interrupt
c. Non-maskable interrupt
d. Both a and b
147. Unix is
a. Multiuser operating system
b. A real time operating system
c. A multitasking operating system
d. Both a and c
148. HDLC is
a. Bit oriented
b. Code transparent
c. Code dependent
d. None of the above
149. DMA is
a. High speed I/O devices
b. It transfers blocks of data directly to and from its own buffer storage to memory
c. In DMA transfer for I/O, CPU has no intervention
d. All of the above
150. LINUX operating system
a. It is multi-user, multi-tasking system with full set of UNIX compatible tools
b. LINUX is designed to be compliant with the relevant POSIX documents
c. LINUX supports POSIX threading extensions and a subset of the POSIX extensions for real time process control
d. All of the above
151. DOS is
a. 16 bit operating system
b. It is software
c. It has directory net capability
d. All of the above
152. Main function of object-oriented language is
a. Method
b. Class
c. Overloading
d. Object
153. Which language is not an object-oriented language?
a. C
b. C++
c. Small talk
d. JAVA
154. End to End layer is
a. Physical layer
b. Data link layer
c. Network layer
d. Transport layer
155. In bridge
a. LANs are connected by bridge
b. It operates in data link layer
c. Bridge is used to connect LAN in six way
d. All of the above
156. SQL
a. Uses a combination of relational algebra and relational calculus
b. SQL is the standard relationship data base language
c. SQL consists three clauses – select, from and where
d. All of these
157. The period of time between an allocation and its subsequent disposal is called
a. Scope
b. Dynamic binding
c. Life time
d. Longevity
158. Which sorting algorithm is fastest?
a. Selection sort
b. Bubble sort
c. Quick sort
d. Heap sort
159. TCP has
a. 32 bit sequence number for connection
b. 48 bit sequence number for header
c. Its header length is 32 bit
d. Both a and c
160. Maximum data rate to transmit binary signal from Nyquist theorem is
a. 2H
b. 3H
c. 0
d. 1
161. 802.5 topology is called
a. Ethernet
b. Token bus
c. Token ring
d. Star
162. RISC processor has
a. Relatively few instruction and addressing modes
b. All operations done with in the register and CPU
c. Hardwired rather than micro-programmed control
d. All of these
163. Which is a 8 bit processor?
a. 8086
b. 8088
c. 8085
d. Both b and c
164. TRAP interrupt is
a. Maskable
b. Non-maskable
c. Vector interrupt
d. Both b and c
165. Address line of 8086 microprocessor is
a. 4 bye
b. 8 byte
c. 10 byte
d. 5 nibble
166. Instruction cycle has the following phases
a. Fetch an instruction from memory and decode the instruction
b. Execute the instruction
c. Read the effective address from memory if the instruction has an indirect address
d. All of these
167. DES has
a. Data encryption standard adopted by the industry for use in security products
b. It is no longer secure in its orginal form, but in a modified form it is still useful
c. Plain text is encrypted in blocks of 64 bits
d. All of the above
168. The system that can allocate resources to each process in some order is called
a. Safe state
b. Unsafe state
c. Dead lock state
d. Pre-emptive state
169. The strategy of allowing precesses that are logically runnable to be temporarily suspended is called
a. Preemptive scheduling
b. Non-preemptive scheduling
c. Shortest job first
d. First come first served
170. DBMS enables you to
a. Store information
b. Modify information
c. Extract information
d. All of these
171. Meta data is
a. Small amount of data
b. Data about data
c. Redundant data
d. None of these
172. DBMS stands for
a. Data base marginal system
b. Directory based memory standard
c. Data base management system
d. Dual bus mask storage
173. Which of the following will determine your choice of systems software for your computer?
a. Is the applications software you want to use compatible with it?
b. Is it expensive?
c. Is it compatible with your hardware?
d. Both a and c
174. The process related to process control, file management, device management, information about system and communication that is requested by any higher level language can be performed by ___________
a. Editors
b. Compilers
c. System call
d. Caching
175. The number of processes completed per unit time is known are
a. Output
b. Throughput
c. Efficiency
d. Capacity
176. FIFO scheduling is
a. Pre-emptive scheduling
b. Non pre-emptive scheduling
c. Deadline scheduling
d. Fair share scheduling
177. Switching the CPU to another process requires to save state of the old process and loading new process state is called as
a. Process blocking
b. Context switch
c. Time sharing
d. None of the above
178. Which directory implementation is used in most operating system?
a. Single level directory structure
b. Two level directory structure
c. Three directory structure
d. Acyclic directory structure
179. A computer sends an odd parity bit ASCII code. The message received is 11001000. It
a. Contains 1 bit error
b. Does not contain 1 bit error
c. May or may not contain 1 bit error
d. Contains 3 bits error
180. The decimal equivalent of binary number 111001 is
a. 57
b. 28
c. 26
d. 52
181. Which of the following produces the best quality graphcis reproduction?
a. Dot matrix printer
b. Laser printer
c. Ink jet printer
d. Plotters
182. When a computer is first turned on or restarted a special type of absolute loader is executed called a
a. Compile and Go Loader
b. Boot loader
c. Bootstrap loader
d. Relating loader
183. The address bus is
a. Unidirectional out of microprocessor
b. Unidirectional into microprocessor
c. Bi-directional
d. Virtual
184. An example of an analog communication method is
a. Laser beam
b. Microwave
c. Voice grade telephone line
d. All of the above
185. A communication device that combines transmissions from several I/O devices into one line is
a. Concentrator
b. Modem
c. Multiplexer
d. Adder
186. Data is allowed to be transmitted in only one direction in a
a. Half-duplex channel
b. Full duplex channel
c. Simplex channel
d. Dumb channel
187. If a digital data rate of 9600 bps is encoded using 8 level phase shift keying (8PSK) method, the modulation rate is
a. 1200 bauds
b. 3200 bauds
c. 4800 bauds
d. 9600 bauds
188. Which layer of OSI model is responsible for creating and recognizing frame boundaries?
a. Physical layer
b. Data link layer
c. Network layer
d. Transport layer
189. A packet switching network
a. Is free and reliable
b. Can reduce the cost of using information utility
c. Allows communication channels to be shared by more than one user
d. Both b and c
190. Loop back IP address is
a. 127.0.0.1
b. 224.0.0.0
c. 225.0.0.0
d. 127.0.0.0
191. X.25 is used for
a. LAN
b. MAN
c. WAN
d. Internet
192. Port number of HTTP is
a. 25
b. 80
c. 125
d. 123
193. Port number of SMTP is
a. 25
b. 80
c. 123
d. 243
194. PPP(point to point protocol) is used to
a. Error detection
b. Authentication
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
195. Open shortest path first(OSPF) is
a. Exterior gateway routing
b. Interior gateway routing
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
196. CIDR (classless inter domain routing)
a. Is used in class C networks
b. Is used in class B networks
c. Is used in class A networks
d. None of the above
197. A group of packets sent through an X.25 packet, from a source arrive in the same order in which they were sent, for
a. VC but not for PVC
b. PVC but not for VC
c. Both PVC and VC
d. None of the above
198. Error detection at data link layer is achieved by
a. Bit stuffing
b. Hamming codes
c. Cyclic redundancy codes
d. Equalization
199. Sockets are used in
a. Physical layer
b. Data link layer
c. Network layer
d. Transport layer
200. In C language, break statement can be simulated by
a. Return
b. Exit
c. Go to
d. All of the above
SNL TTA (Junior Engineer) 2012 Question Paper with Answers
1..Directions: Find the word nearest to the meaning to the following:
1. GAPE
a. To wound
b. Open mouth wide
c. An animal
d. Act foolishly
Answer: B
a. Long journey
b. Young nun
c. Celebration
d. Watchful wakefulness
Answer: D
3. FICKLE
a. Constant
b. Tasty
c. Changeable
d. Nervous
Answer: C
a. Sweet dish
b. Offspring
c. Spendthrift
d. Exceptionally talented person
Answer: D
a. Foolish
b. Unbelievable
c. Wonderful
d. Uncertain
Answer: B
6. Life history of a person written by another person
a. Autobiography
b. History
c. Biography
d. Epic
Answer: C
a. Expect
b. Accept
c. Except
d. Expected
Answer: C
a. Root
b. Route
c. Rout
d. Roote
Answer: B
a. Descent
b. Ascent
c. Accent
d. Assent
Answer: D
a. When
b. Why
c. What
d. Which
Answer: B
a. Badminton
b. Table tennis
c. Lawn tennis
d. Weightlifting
Answer: A
a. New Delhi
b. Guangzhou
c. Beijing
d. Kuala Lumpur
Answer: B
a. Breed of buffalo
b. Dance form of South India
c. Song Bird
d. Part of Gangetic Delta
Answer: D
a. Amitava Ghosh
b. Mulk Raj Anand
c. Chetan Bhagat
d. Salman Rushdie
Answer: C
a. Aijwal
b. Panaji
c. Imphal
d. Ziro
Answer: A
a. Punjab
b. Maharashtra
c. Kerala
d. Andhra Pradesh
Answer: D
a. Sh. A Raja
b. Sh. Dayanidhi Maran
c. Sh. Sachin Pilot
d. Sh. Kapil Sibal
Answer: D
a. USA
b. Canada
c. South Africa
d. Brazil
19. Missile testing range is at
a. Chandipur
b. Sriharikota
c. Thumba
d. Vadodara
20. Uranium mines are located in
a. Neyveli
b. Jaduguda
c. Trombay
d. Raniganj
Section II: Basic Engineering
21. The Eigen values of a matrix are also called as _________ roots.
a. Characteristic and Latent
b. Characteristic
c. Latent
d. None
Answer: B
a. Inverse and power of matrix
b. Only inverse of matrix
c. Only power of matrix
d. None
Answer: B
a. Symmetric and skew symmetric
b. Symmetric and Hermitian
c. Skew symmetric and Hermitian
d. None
Answer: A
a. Symmetric
b. Skew Symmetric
c. Hermitian
d. None
Answer: A
a. 2
b. 0
c. 3
d. 4
Answer: B
a. Y = X2
b. Y = X
c. Y = eX
d. None
Answer: A
a. s/(s2 + a2)
b. s/(s2 - a2)
c. a/(s2 + a2)
d. none
Answer: C
a. Polarization
b. Interference
c. Reflection
d. Diffraction
Answer: A
a. Velocity
b. Wavelength
c. Frequency
d. All of the above
Answer: D
a. UV rays
b. IR rays
c. Radio Waves
d. X-rays
Answer: C
a. It is monochromatic
b. It is coherent
c. It is not absorbed
d. It has small angular speed
Answer: B
a. 1 coulomb second
b. 1 coulomb per second
c. 1 joule second
d. 1 joule/second
Answer: B
a. Will become half
b. Will be doubled
c. Will remain same
d. Will become four times
Answer: C
a. 4 Ω
b. 8 Ω
c. 0.25 Ω
d. 2 Ω
Answer: A
a. Metallic conductors at low temperatures
b. Metallic conductors at high temperatures
c. For electrolytes when current passes through them
d. For diode when current flows
Answer: C
a. 4:9
b. 9:4
c. 5:4
d. 1:1
Answer: D
a. 3.0 volts
b. 0.75 volts
c. Zero
d. 1.5 volts
Answer: C
a. 0.1 A
b. 1 A
c. 10 A
d. 0.01 A
Answer: B
a. 25 Ω
b. 5 Ω
c. 10 Ω
d. 20 Ω
Answer: B
a. Self-induction
b. Mutual induction
c. Ampere’s law
d. Fleming’s right hand rule
Answer: D
a. NABR
b. NABω
c. NABRω
d. NAB
Answer: B
a. 50%
b. 90%
c. 10%
d. 30%
Answer: B
a. Paper capacitor, oil impregnated
b. Electrolytic capacitor
c. Parallel plate capacitor with mica dielectric
d. None of the above
Answer: A
a. Magnetic as well as heating effect
b. Only chemical effect
c. Only magnetic effect
d. Only heating effect
Answer: A
a. The current flows into the drawing area
b. The current flows out of the drawing area
c. There is a positive current in the conductor
d. The cork screw rule cannot be applied
Answer: A
a. Φ/ NI
b. NI/Φ
c. NΦ/I
d. ΦI/N
Answer: C
a. B = ΦXA
b. B = Φ/A
c. B = A/Φ
d. None
Answer: B
a. Voltage
b. Current
c. Power
d. All of the above
Answer: C
a. 0
b. 2 LI2
c. LI2/2
d. None
Answer: C
a. Irms = 1.414 Imax
b. Irms = Imax
c. Irms = 0.707 Imax
d. None
Answer: C
a. IRMS
b. IAVE
c. IMAX
d. None
Answer: A
a. Thin film
b. Hybrid
c. Thick Film
d. Monolithic
Answer: D
a. Resistor
b. Insulating layer
c. Mechanical output
d. None
Answer: B
a. Sensitivity
b. Fidelity
c. Selectivity
d. None
Answer: C
a. Both voltage and current amplification
b. Voltage amplification
c. Current amplification
d. None
Answer: B
a. Radio receivers
b. Radio transmitters
c. TV receivers
d. None
Answer: A
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. None
Answer: B
a. Real
b. Imaginary
c. Complex
d. Integer
Answer: A
a. Transformer
b. RC
c. Direct
d. Impedance
Answer: A
a. Small
b. Very small
c. Large
d. None
Answer: C
a. AF amplifiers
b. Detectors
c. RF amplifiers
d. None
Answer: B
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. AB
Answer: C
a. Oscillators
b. Rectifiers
c. Amplifiers
d. None
Answer: C
a. Current gain
b. Impedance matching
c. Voltage gain
d. none
Answer: B
a. Positive
b. Neither positive nor negative
c. Negative
d. Data insufficient
Answer: A
a. Step up
b. Step down
c. Same turn ratio
d. None
Answer: A
a. CC
b. CB
c. CE
d. None
Answer: A
a. 180o
b. 0o
c. 90o
d. 270o
Answer: A
a. Low
b. Very low
c. High
d. Very high
Answer: C
a. β = (1-α)/α
b. β = α/(1-α)
c. β = α/(1+α)
d. β = (1+α)/α
Answer: B
a. 1: 1-α : α
b. 1: 2: 3
c. 1: α: α
d. α: β: α
Answer: D
a. 100 %
b. 25.20 %
c. 40.6 %
d. 81.2 %
Answer: D
a. 102 : 1
b. 10-2 : 1
c. 1 : 10-4
d. 1 : 104
Answer: D
a. Becomes half
b. Becomes one-fourth
c. No change
d. None
Answer: A
a. AI
b. P
c. O
d. Ge
Answer: A
a. 0oC
b. – 100oC
c. 300oK
d. 0oK
Answer: D
a. EG1 = EG2 = EG3
b. EG1 < EG2 < EG3
c. EG1 > EG2 > EG3
d. EG1 < EG2 > EG3
Answer: B
a. Insulator
b. P-type
c. N-type
d. Superconductor
Answer: C
a. TTL
b. ECL
c. CMOS
d. DCTL
Answer: A
a. ASCII
b. BCD
c. Excess-3
d. Gray code
Answer: D
a. Hollerith code
b. Gray code
c. Hamming code
d. BCD
Answer: C
a. 100 µW
b. 1 mW
c. 10 mW
d. 2 mW
Answer: C
a. 10 ns
b. 16 ns
c. 35 ns
d. 6 ns
Answer: A
a. TTL
b. DTL
c. CMOS
d. NMOS
Answer: C
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Answer: A
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
Answer: C
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 3
Answer: A
a. Inequality circuit
b. 1 bit comparator
c. Difference circuit
d. All of the above
Answer: D
a. A
b. B
c. A’ + B
d. A + B
Answer: B
a. An inverter
b. A non-inverter
c. A controlled inverter
d. None
Answer: C
a. 2, 3
b. 2, 2
c. 3, 2
d. 4, 2
Answer: C
a. AND gate
b. NOT gate
c. OR gate
d. NAND gate
Answer: C
a. Binary numbers
b. Octal numbers
c. Decimal numbers
d. Hexa-decimal numbers
Answer: A
a. AND gates
b. OR gates
c. NOT gates
d. NAND gates
Answer: D
a. 2,2
b. 3,2
c. 2,3
d. 1,2
Answer: A
a. RS flip-flop
b. D flip-flop
c. JK flip-flop
d. T flip-flop
Answer: A
a. Race condition
b. Synchronous condition
c. Asynchronous condition
d. Toggle condition
Answer: D
a. Toggle and Delay gate
b. Delay and Toggle switch
c. Both used as delay gates
d. Both used as toggle switches
Answer: B
a. Sequential
b. Combinational
c. Arithmetic
d. None
Answer: A
a. D
b. T
c. SR
d. JK
Answer: D
a. Delay line
b. Modem
c. Multiplexer
d. Decoder
Answer: D
a. It has 2N counts
b. It has N counts
c. It has a single ‘1’ in each count
d. None
Answer: A
a. Synchronous counter
b. Ripple counter
c. Ring counter
d. Decoder
Answer: A
a. Ripple counter
b. Asynchronous counter
c. Synchronous counter
d. None
Answer: C
a. Storage register
b. Serial shift register
c. Ring counter
d. None
Answer: B
a. 7
b. 4
c. 5
d. 14
Answer: B
a. Frequency
b. Time
c. Distance
d. All of the above
Answer: A
a. Ring counter
b. Ripple counter
c. Synchronous counter
d. Asynchronous counter
Answer: B
a. N
b. N2
c. 2N
d. 2N
Answer: D
a. Unidirectional SCR
b. Bidirectional SCR
c. NPN transistor
d. PNP transistor
Section III: Specialization
Answer: B
a. P/Pa
b. Pa/P
c. Pr/P
d. P/Pr
Answer: A
a. Delta
b. Parallel
c. Star
d. Series
Answer: C
a. 1 µA
b. 1 mA
c. 10 mA
d. 35 mA
Answer: D
a. Directly proportional to back EMF and inversely proportional to Flux
b. Inversely proportional to back EMF and directly proportional to Flux
c. Directly proportional to EMF and Flux
d. Inversely proportional to EMF and Flux
Answer: A
a. Commutation
b. Speed
c. Frequency
d. Brush contact drop
Answer: D
a. High permeability and low hysteresis loss
b. Low permeability and high hysteresis loss
c. Low permeability and low hysteresis loss
d. High permeability and High hysteresis loss
Answer: A
a. Faraday’s Law
b. Joule’s Law
c. Lenz’s Law
d. Coulomb’s Law
Answer: C
a. KVA
b. KVAR
c. KW
d. KWh
Answer: A
a. 0.2
b. 0.4
c. 0.5
d. Cannot be determined by this data
Answer: C
a. Air blast circuit breaker
b. SiF4 (Sulphur Hexafluoride) circuit breaker
c. Air brake circuit breaker
d. Bulk oil circuit breaker
Answer: D
a. The internal resistance of ammeters should be very small and that of the voltmeter very high.
b. The internal resistance of ammeters should be very high and that of the voltmeter very small.
c. The internal resistance of ammeters and voltmeters should be very small.
d. The internal resistance of ammeters and voltmeters should be very high.
Answer: D
a. Measures the resistance of a circuit
b. Can locate open circuits
c. Can locate short circuits
d. All of these
Answer: D
a. Very low resistance
b. Insulation resistance
c. Q of a coil
d. Inductance of a coil
Answer: B
a. Apparent power
b. True power
c. Reactive power
d. The product of voltage and current, V x I
Answer: B
a. Specific gravity of liquids
b. Relative humidity
c. Specific gravity of solids
d. Specific gravity of gases
Answer: A
a. Bourdan gage
b. Thermister
c. Thermocouple
d. All of the above
Answer: D
a. 326 volts and 60 Hz
b. 326 volts and 50 Hz
c. 230 volts and 60 Hz
d. 230 volts and 50 Hz
Answer: D
a. 30o
b. 100o
c. 120o
d. 180o
Answer: C
a. equal to
b. greater than
c. less than
d. unequal to
Answer: A
a. 30o
b. 100o
c. 120o
d. 180o
Answer: C
a. Water
b. Ammonia
c. Chlorofluro-carbons
d. Air
Answer: C
a. Evaporation
b. Compression
c. Expansion
d. Condensation
Answer: B
a. Very low frequencies
b. 50 Hz
c. High frequencies
d. Microwave frequencies
Answer: D
a. Companding
b. Pre-emphasis
c. De-emphasis
d. None
Answer: C
a. 30 MHz – 300 MHz
b. 300 MHz – 3 GHz
c. 3 GHz – 30 GHz
d. 30 GHz – 300 GHz
Answer: C
a. TE11
b. TE10
c. TM01
d. TM11
Answer: B
a. TE11
b. TE10
c. TM01
d. TM11
Answer: A
a. LC = RG
b. L/G = R/C
c. L/C = G/R
d. L/C = R/G
Answer: D
a. LC
b. √LC
c. √(L/C)
d. √(C/L)
Answer: C
a. Input as well as output
b. Present and past inputs
c. Present as well as future inputs
d. None of the above
Answer: A
a. Input as well as output
b. Present and past inputs
c. Present as well as future inputs
d. None of the above
Answer: B
a. Infinity
b. Zero
c. Unity
d. None of these
Answer: C
a. Impulse response
b. Step response
c. Ramp response
d. None of the above
Answer: B
a. Routh stability criterion
b. Hurwitz stability criterion
c. Root locus technique
d. None of these
Answer: A
a. 3
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7
Answer: C
a. Maskable interrupt
b. Vector interrupt
c. Non-maskable interrupt
d. Both a and b
Answer: A
a. Multiuser operating system
b. A real time operating system
c. A multitasking operating system
d. Both a and c
Answer: D
a. Bit oriented
b. Code transparent
c. Code dependent
d. None of the above
Answer: D
a. High speed I/O devices
b. It transfers blocks of data directly to and from its own buffer storage to memory
c. In DMA transfer for I/O, CPU has no intervention
d. All of the above
Answer: D
a. It is multi-user, multi-tasking system with full set of UNIX compatible tools
b. LINUX is designed to be compliant with the relevant POSIX documents
c. LINUX supports POSIX threading extensions and a subset of the POSIX extensions for real time process control
d. All of the above
Answer: D
a. 16 bit operating system
b. It is software
c. It has directory net capability
d. All of the above
Answer: D
a. Method
b. Class
c. Overloading
d. Object
Answer: B
a. C
b. C++
c. Small talk
d. JAVA
Answer: A
a. Physical layer
b. Data link layer
c. Network layer
d. Transport layer
Answer: D
a. LANs are connected by bridge
b. It operates in data link layer
c. Bridge is used to connect LAN in six way
d. All of the above
Answer: B
a. Uses a combination of relational algebra and relational calculus
b. SQL is the standard relationship data base language
c. SQL consists three clauses – select, from and where
d. All of these
Answer: D
a. Scope
b. Dynamic binding
c. Life time
d. Longevity
Answer: C
a. Selection sort
b. Bubble sort
c. Quick sort
d. Heap sort
Answer: C
a. 32 bit sequence number for connection
b. 48 bit sequence number for header
c. Its header length is 32 bit
d. Both a and c
Answer: D
a. 2H
b. 3H
c. 0
d. 1
Answer: A
a. Ethernet
b. Token bus
c. Token ring
d. Star
Answer: C
a. Relatively few instruction and addressing modes
b. All operations done with in the register and CPU
c. Hardwired rather than micro-programmed control
d. All of these
Answer: D
a. 8086
b. 8088
c. 8085
d. Both b and c
Answer: D
a. Maskable
b. Non-maskable
c. Vector interrupt
d. Both b and c
Answer: D
a. 4 bye
b. 8 byte
c. 10 byte
d. 5 nibble
Answer: D
a. Fetch an instruction from memory and decode the instruction
b. Execute the instruction
c. Read the effective address from memory if the instruction has an indirect address
d. All of these
Answer: D
a. Data encryption standard adopted by the industry for use in security products
b. It is no longer secure in its orginal form, but in a modified form it is still useful
c. Plain text is encrypted in blocks of 64 bits
d. All of the above
Answer: D
a. Safe state
b. Unsafe state
c. Dead lock state
d. Pre-emptive state
Answer: C
a. Preemptive scheduling
b. Non-preemptive scheduling
c. Shortest job first
d. First come first served
Answer: A
a. Store information
b. Modify information
c. Extract information
d. All of these
Answer: D
a. Small amount of data
b. Data about data
c. Redundant data
d. None of these
Answer: B
a. Data base marginal system
b. Directory based memory standard
c. Data base management system
d. Dual bus mask storage
Answer: C
a. Is the applications software you want to use compatible with it?
b. Is it expensive?
c. Is it compatible with your hardware?
d. Both a and c
Answer: D
a. Editors
b. Compilers
c. System call
d. Caching
Answer: C
a. Output
b. Throughput
c. Efficiency
d. Capacity
Answer: B
a. Pre-emptive scheduling
b. Non pre-emptive scheduling
c. Deadline scheduling
d. Fair share scheduling
Answer: B
a. Process blocking
b. Context switch
c. Time sharing
d. None of the above
Answer: B
a. Single level directory structure
b. Two level directory structure
c. Three directory structure
d. Acyclic directory structure
Answer: C
a. Contains 1 bit error
b. Does not contain 1 bit error
c. May or may not contain 1 bit error
d. Contains 3 bits error
Answer: B
a. 57
b. 28
c. 26
d. 52
Answer: A
a. Dot matrix printer
b. Laser printer
c. Ink jet printer
d. Plotters
Answer: D
a. Compile and Go Loader
b. Boot loader
c. Bootstrap loader
d. Relating loader
Answer: C
a. Unidirectional out of microprocessor
b. Unidirectional into microprocessor
c. Bi-directional
d. Virtual
Answer: A
a. Laser beam
b. Microwave
c. Voice grade telephone line
d. All of the above
Answer: D
a. Concentrator
b. Modem
c. Multiplexer
d. Adder
Answer: C
a. Half-duplex channel
b. Full duplex channel
c. Simplex channel
d. Dumb channel
Answer: C
a. 1200 bauds
b. 3200 bauds
c. 4800 bauds
d. 9600 bauds
Answer: B
a. Physical layer
b. Data link layer
c. Network layer
d. Transport layer
Answer: B
a. Is free and reliable
b. Can reduce the cost of using information utility
c. Allows communication channels to be shared by more than one user
d. Both b and c
Answer: D
a. 127.0.0.1
b. 224.0.0.0
c. 225.0.0.0
d. 127.0.0.0
Answer: A
a. LAN
b. MAN
c. WAN
d. Internet
Answer: C
a. 25
b. 80
c. 125
d. 123
Answer: B
a. 25
b. 80
c. 123
d. 243
Answer: A
a. Error detection
b. Authentication
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Answer: C
a. Exterior gateway routing
b. Interior gateway routing
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
Answer: B
a. Is used in class C networks
b. Is used in class B networks
c. Is used in class A networks
d. None of the above
Answer: A
a. VC but not for PVC
b. PVC but not for VC
c. Both PVC and VC
d. None of the above
Answer: C
a. Bit stuffing
b. Hamming codes
c. Cyclic redundancy codes
d. Equalization
Answer: C
a. Physical layer
b. Data link layer
c. Network layer
d. Transport layer
Answer: D
a. Return
b. Exit
c. Go to
d. All of the above
Answer:B
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